Paper 1 UGC NET

1. “Because you deserve to know” is the punch-line of which newspaper?
a. The Hindu.
b. The Times of India.
c. The Indian Express.
d. The Hindustan Times.

(The answer, apparently is The Hindustan Times. Source)
2. Which Article of the Constitution of India protects the rights of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their own choice?
a. Article 29.
b. Article 26.
c. Article 30.

3. Which committee’s recommendation lead to the establishment of the University Grants Commission?
a. S Radhakrishnan Committee.
b. Mudaliar Committee.

4. Which of the following pair is incorrectly matched?
a. N. Ram : The Hindu.
b. Barkha Dutt : Zee News.
c. Pranav Roy : NDTV 24×7.
d. Prabhu Chawla : Aaj Tak.

5. Which is the following is a 24 hours English business news channel?
a. CNBC.
b. Zee News.
c. India News.
d. NDTV 24×7.

6. Which number will come in the series 8, 24, 12, ? , 18, 54:
a. 26.
b. 32.
c. 36.

7. What is a modem?
a. Operating System.
b. Digital to analog signal converter.

8. Gave a series of pH values 4, 5, 7 and 8 and asked each pH to be correctly matched with the correct comments - moderate acid, alkaline, neutral, dangerous.

9. Absorption of carbon dioxide in seawater leads to:
a. Salinity.
b. Raising sea level.
c. Increased plankton growth.

10. What is largest contributor to carbon dioxide emission in India?
a. Burning coal.
b. Firewood.

11. In which year was the United Nations established?
a.1944.
b.1945.
c. 1946.

12. The sides of triangle are in the ratio of 1/2 : 2/3 : 3/4 . The area of this triangle is 54 cm. What is the length of its shortest side?

[The following three question was based on a graph. The X axis carried the name of companies A, B, C, D, E and F. The Y axis represented their profits; 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60 and so on. On this was plotted the lines of profit, one each representing the year 2001 and the year 2001. This was followed by three questions. * Here’s a rough sketch.]

13. Which company earned maximum profit in the year 2001?

14. Which company earned minimum profit in the year 2000?

15.Which company earned maximum average profit over the years 2000 and 2001?

16. The question provided for five sections of a class, the number of students in each section and the mean of marks for each section.

Section - No. of Students in the Section - Mean marks of the Section #
A - 10 - 30
B - 40 - 20
C - 10 - 15
D - 15 - 20
E - 20 - 10

What is the overall mean marks of all the students?

[Next three questions were from a passage on movies followed by three straightforward question. Of course the questions won’t make any sense here, without the passage itself. Suffice it to say that they were child's play. Remember that the answers were from the passage itself, and not what the candidate thought correct or latest information as a matter of fact.]
17. What word could Yash Chopra not pronounce?
a. Zeistgeist.

18. What was the costume of the heroine in Veer Zarra?

19 .Which is the latest Yash Chopra movie?

20. Who made the movie Lamhe?

21. With which movie is associated?
a. Desh Ki Dharti

22.What dooes LAN stand for?
a. Local Area Network

23. What is the URL of an email?
a. www@mail.com
b. WWW@mail.com
c. www_mail.com
d. www.mail.com

24. Which of the following is not a research method?
a. Philosophy
b. Observation

25. Research can be grouped as the following kinds, except (options gave types of research)
a. Action method.
b. Philosophical & historical method.

26. What is necessary to become a researcher?
a. A post-graduation degree.
b. Analytical and reasoning mind.

27. Which of the following is am not instructional tool?
a. Overhead projector.
b. Transparency.
c. Cassette.
d. Printed material.

28. Which of the following about lecture method is not correct?
a. It is passive.
b. It can give knowledge.
c. It can develop reasoning.
d. It is a one way process.

29. What is the aim of higher education; to enable students to?
a. Take decisions.
b. Pass exams.
c. Ask questions in lecture.

30. Which of the following is incorrect?
a. Sharmila Tagore is the Chairperson of National Films Development Corporation.
b. Preity Zinta, Yash Chopra are recipients of Dada Sahib Phalke award.
c. Yash Chopra is a member of Certification Board.
d. Hema Malini is the Chairperson of Children’s Film Society of India.

31. Which of the following statements about computers is correct:
a. Fast and accurate processing of qualitative and qualitative data.
b. Processing quantitative data only.
c. Processing qualitative data only.

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This sample paper in for Paper I of the UGC NET Exam which is common for all streams.

1. Which one of the following is the main objective of teaching?

(A) To give information related to the syllabus.

(B) To develop thinking power of students.

(C) To dictate notes to students.

(D) To prepare students to pass the examination.

2. Which one of the following is a good method of teaching?

(A) Lecture and Dictation

(B) Seminar and Project

(C) Seminar and Dictation

(D) Dictation and Assignment

3. Teacher uses teaching aids for

(A) Making teaching interesting

(B) Making teaching within understanding level of students

(C) Making students attentive.

(D) The sake of its use.

4. Effectiveness of teaching depends on

(A) Qualification of teacher

(B) Personality of teacher

(C) Handwriting of teacher

(D) Subject understanding of teacher

5. Which of the following is not characteristic of a good question paper?

(A) Objectivity

(B) Subjectivity

(C) No use of vague words

(D) Reliable.

6. A researcher is generally expected to:

(A) Study the existing literature in a field

(B) Generate new principles and theories

(C) Synthesize the idea given by others

(D) Evaluate the findings of a study

7. One of the essential characteristics of research is:

(A) Replicability

(B) Generalizability

(C) Usability

(D) Objectivity

8. The Government of India conducts Census after every 10 years. The method of research used in this process is:

(A) Case Study

(B) Developmental

(C) Survey

(D) Experimental

9. An academic association assembled at one place to discuss the progress of its work and future plans. Such an assembly is known as a

(A) Conference

(B) Seminar

(C) Workshop

(D) Symposium

10. An investigator studied the census date for a given area and prepared a write-up based on them. Such a write-up is called

(A) Research paper

(B) Article

(C) Thesis

(D) Research report

Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 11 to 15

The constitution guarantees every citizen the fundamental right to equality. Yet after 50 years of independence, just one perusal of the female infant mortality figures, the literacy rates and the employment opportunities for women is sufficient evidence that discrimination exists. Almost predictably, this gender, bias is evident in our political system as well. In the 13th Lok Sabha, there were only 43 women MPs out of total of 543; it is not a surprising figure, for never has women's representation in Parliament been more than 10 per cent.

Historically, the manifestos of major political have always encouraged women's participation. It has been merely a charade. So, women's organizations, denied a place on merit, opted for the last resort; a reservation of seats for women in parliament and State Assemblies. Parties, which look at everything with a vote bank in mind, seemed to endorse this. Alas, this too was a mirage.

But there is another aspect also. At a time when caste is the trump card, some politicians want the bill to include further quotas fro women from among minorities and backward castes. There is more to it. A survey shows that there is a general antipathy towards the bill. It is actually a classic case of doublespeak: in public, politicians were endorsing women's reservation but in the backrooms of Parliament, they were busy sabotaging it. The reasons are clear: Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power.

11. The problem raised in the passage reflects badly on our

(A) Political system

(B) Social behaviour

(C) Individual behaviour

(D) Behaviour of a group of people

12. According to the passage, political parties have mostly in mind

(A) Economic prosperity

(B) Vote bank

(C) People' welfare

(D) Patriotism

13. "Trump Card" means

(A) Trying to move a dead horse

(B) Playing the card cautiously

(C) Sabotaging all the moves by others

(D) Making the final jolt for success

14. The sentence "Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power" implies

(A) Lust for power

(B) Desire to serve the nation

(C) Conviction in one's own political abilities

(D) Political corruption

15. What is the percentage of women in the Lok Sabha

(A) 10

(B) 7. 91

(C) 43

(D) 9. 1

16. Informal communication network within the organization is knows as

(A) Interpersonal communication

(B) Intrapersonal Communication

(C) Mass Communication

(D) Grapevine Communication

17. TV Channel launched fro covering only Engineering and Technology subject is known as

(A) Gyan Darshan

(B) Vyas

(C) Eklavya

(D) Kisan

18. In which state the maximum number of periodicals are brought out for public information:

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Tamil Nadu

(C) Kerala

(D) Punjab

19. The main objective of public broadcasting system i. e Prasar Bharti is

(A) Inform, Entertainment & Education

(B) Entertain, Information & Interaction

(C) Educate, Interact & entertain

(D) Entertainment only

20. The competerrcy of an effective communicator can be judged on the basis of:

(A) Personality of communicator

(B) Experience in the field

(C) Interactivity with target audience

(D) Meeting the needs of target audience.

21. Which one of the following belongs to the category of homogeneous date:

(A) Multi-storeyed houses in a colony

(B) Trees in a garden

(C) Vehicular traffic on a highway

(D) Student population in a class

22. In which of the following ways a theory is not different from a belief?

(A) Antecedent - consequent

(B) Acceptability

(C) Verifiability

(D) Demonstratability

23. The state - "Honesty is the best policy" is

(A) A fact

(B) An value

(C) An opinion

(D) A value judgement

24. Which one is like pillar, pole and standard?

(A) Beam

(B) Plank

(C) Shaft

(D) Timber

25. Following incomplete series is presented. Find out the number which should come at the place of question mark which will complete the series: 4, 16, 36, 64, ?

(A) 300

(B) 200

(C) 100

(D) 150

26. The following question is based on the diagram given below. If the two big circles represent animals living on soil and those living in water, and the small circle stands for the animals who both live on soil and in water, which figure represents the relationships among them.


27. Of the following statement, there are two statements both of which cannot be true but both can be false. Which are these two statements?

(i) All machines make noise

(ii) Some machines are noisy

(iii) No machine makes noise

(iv) Some machines are not noisy

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i) and (iii)

(D) (ii) and (iv)

28. In the following question a statement is followed by two assumptions.

(i) and (ii) . An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the following assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement: We need not worry about errors but must try to learn from our errors.

Assumptions:

(i) Errors may take place when we are carrying out certain work.

(ii) We are capable of benefiting from the past and improve our chances of error-free work.

(A) Only assumption (i) is implicit

(B) Only assumption (ii) is implicit

(C) Either assumption (i) or (ii) is implicit

(D) Both the assumptions are implicit

29. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered (i) and (ii) Decide which of the arguments is 'strong' and which is 'weak'. Choose the correct answer from the given below Should the press exercise some self-restraint?

(i) Yes, they should not publish new items which may incite the readers to indulge in wrong practices.

(ii) No. it is the responsibility of the press to present the truth irrespective of the consequences.

(A) Only the argument (i) is strong

(B) Only the argument (ii) is strong

(C) Neither argument (i) nor (ii) is strong

(D) Both the arguments (i) and (ii) are strong

30. Study the argument and the inference drawn from that argument. Given below carefully.

Argument: Anything that goes up definitely falls down. Helicopter goes up. Inference: So the helicopter will definitely fall down.

What in your opinion is the inference drawn from the argument?

(A) Valid

(B) Invalid

(C) Doubtful

(D) Long drawn one

Four students W, X, Y, Z appeared in four papers, I, II, III and IV in a test. Their scores out of 100 are given below.

Students
Papers

I
II
III
IV

W
60
81
45
55

X
59
43
51
A

Y
74
A
71
65

Z
72
76
A
68

Where 'A' stands for absent



Where 'A' stands for absent

Read the above table and answer below mentioned Questions 31 to 35

31. Which candidate has secured between 60-65% marks in aggregate

(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z

32. Who has obtained the lowest average in aggregate.

(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z

33. Who has obtained the highest average

(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z

34. In which paper the lowest marks were obtained by thecandiates

(A) I

(B) II

(C) III

(D) IV

35. Which candidate has secured the highest percentage in the papers appeared

(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z

36. ICT stands for

(A) Information common technology

(B) Information & communication technology

(C) Information and computer technology

(D) Inter connected technology

37. Computer Can

(A) Process both quantitative and qualitative information

(B) Store huge information

(C) Process information and fast accurately

(D) All the above.

38. Satellite Communication works through

(A) Rader

(B) Transponder

(C) Receptor

(D) Transmitter

39. A Computer is that machine which works more like a human brain. This definition of computer is

(A) Correct

(B) Incorrect

(C) Partially correct

(D) None of the above.

40. Information and communication technology includes

(A) E-mail

(B) Internet

(C) Education television

(D) All the above.

41. It is believed that our globe is warming progressively. This global warming will eventually result in.

(A) Increase in availability of usable land.

(B) Uniformity of climate at equator and poles.

(C) Fall in the sea level

(D) melting of polar ice.

42. In which parts of India ground water is affected with arsenic contamination?

(A) Haryana

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Sikkim

(D) West Bengal

43. Sunderban in Hooghly delta is known for

(A) Grasslands

(B) Conifers

(C) Mangroves

(D) Arid forests

44. Sardar Sarover dam is located on the river

(A) Ganga

(B) Godavari

(C) Mahanadi

(D) Narmada

45. Which one of the following trees has medicinal value?

(A) Pine

(B) Teak

(C) Neem

(D) Oak

46. Which one of the following is not considered a part of technical education in India:

(A) Medical

(B) Management

(C) Pharmaceutical

(D) Aeronautical

47. Which of the following is a Central university

(A) Mumbai University

(B) Calcutta University

(C) Delhi University

(D) Madras University

48. Identify the main Principle on which the Parliamentary System Operates

(A) Responsibility of Executive to Legislature

(B) Supremacy of Parliament

(C) Supremacy of Judiciary

(D) Theory of Separation of Power

49. The reservation of seats for women in the Panchayat Raj Institutions is:

(A) 30 % of the total seats

(B) 33 % of the total seate

(C) 33% of the total population

(D) In Proportion to their population

50. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

LIST ( Institutions)

LIST II( Locations)

1. Indian Veterinary Research Institute

(i) Pune

2. Institute of Armament Technology

(ii) Izat Nagar

3. Indian Institute of Science

(iii) Delhi

4. National Institute for Educational Pannesi

(iv) Bangalore and Administrators

(A) 1(ii), 2(i), 3(iv), 4(iii)

(B) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(ii), 4(iii)

(C) 1(ii), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(iv)

(D) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i)

Source: Sample Paper based on questions provided by UGC Model Paper.

Answer Key:

1.
B
2.
B
3.
B
4.
D
5.
B
6.
B
7.
D
8.
C
9.
A
10.
B

11.
B
12.
B
13.
D
14.
A
15.
B
16.
D
17.
C
18.
C
19.
A
20.
D

21.
A
22.
B
23.
D
24.
A
25.
A
26.
D
27.
C
28.
D
29.
A
30.
D

31.
A
32.
B
33.
A
34.
B
35.
D
36.
B
37.
D
38.
B
39.
A
40.
D

41.
D
42.
D
43.
C
44.
D
45.
C
46.
A
47.
C
48.
A
49.
B
50.
A



1. If the speed of light (3×108 m/s) and the mean radius of the earth (6×103 km) are taken

to be the units of speed and length respectively, then the value of the new unit of

acceleration expressed in m/s2 will be

1. 1.5 × 1010



2. 50

3. 0.02

4. 1.2 × 105



2. The minimum number of multiplications required to evaluate the expression



a + bx + cx2 + dx3 + ex4 is


1. 4

2. 5

3. 3

4. 7

3. Consider the function



f (x)= x (1− x) for 0≤ x≤1


The function

1. attains minima at x = ½ and ¾.

2. is discontinuous in the given interval

3. is negative at a few points in the given interval.

4. has a maximum at x = ½.

4. Which of the following distributions has the smallest variance?

5. One way to determine whether a number (n) is prime or not is to divide it by

numbers less than itself. The number of divisions required is

1. n/2

2. n − 1

3. 2 n




4. less than n




6. The angular velocity vector of the Earth’s rotation points

1. from east to west

2. from west to east

3. from north to south

4. from south to north

7. The top of a mountain is at an elevation of 45° from one bank of a river and at an

elevation of 60° from the other bank. If the river has a width of 1 km, what is the height

[in km] of the mountain?

1. 1

2

2. 3

3. 3

1+ 3

4. 3

3 −1

8. On a cold day, a copper vessel feels colder to touch than a glass bowl. What is the

reason for this?

1. Glass does not cool down as easily as copper does.

2. Glass is a poor conductor of heat compared to copper.

3. The specific heat of glass is higher than that of copper.

4. Glass radiates more heat than copper does.

9. If the distance between two bodies of masses m1 and m2 is doubled, the gravitational

force between them

1. doubles.

2. halves.

3. becomes one-fourth.

4. remains the same.

10. A cricket ball and a football are dropped simultaneously from the top of Qutub Minar.

Which of the following best describes their subsequent behaviour?

1. They touch the ground at the same instant.

2. They touch the ground with the same velocity.

3. The cricket ball reaches before the football.

4. The football reaches before the cricket ball.

11. A mass m (200 g) slides horizontally due to a downward force applied by a 500 g

weight (as shown in figure). The velocity of the mass m (ignoring friction)

12.

1. increases as a function of time with constant acceleration.

2. remains constant.

3. changes with time with increasing acceleration.

4. changes with time with decreasing acceleration.

12. The O–H bonds in water molecule are polar. The molecule is symmetric and the H–O–H

bond angle is approximately 107°. The dipole moment vector of the molecule is

1. zero

2. along the OH bond

3. randomly oriented

4. along the bisector of the H–O–H angle

13. You wish to observe a small organism closely, using a convex lens. If you wish to

avoid distortion of the image, you should keep the object

1. at a distance greater than the focal length

2. less than the focal length

3. at twice the focal length

4. exactly at the focal length

14. A charged particle moving with a constant velocity enters a magnetic field

perpendicular to its velocity. In which direction y an electric field should be applied to

compensate the magnetic force?

1. Along the initial velocity

2. Perpendicular to the initial velocity and parallel to the magnetic field

3. Perpendicular to both, the initial velocity and the magnetic field

4. Along the magnetic field

15. Two pendula of lengths l1 and l2 (= 2l1) have the same period at two different

locations. The accelerations due to gravity at these two locations, g1 and g2, are related

by

1. g1 = g2



2. g1 = 2g2



3. g2 = 2g1



4. g2 = 4g1



16. Water rises naturally out of an artesian well because

1. the water has lots of dissolved gases

2. the water table is at the ground level

3. the water table is below the ground level

4. the water table is above the ground level

17. Although, we know from chemical evidence that life on Earth evolved as early as 3.5

billion years ago, the most ancient available fossils are only 0.54 billion years old. This is

because

1. acidic ocean dissolved all life forms

2. early life forms were soft bodied

3. rocks older than 0.54 billion years do not exist

4. a large asteroid impact destroyed all earlier records

18. During α-decay of a radioactive atom, the mass number reduces by 4 units and the atomic

number decreases by 2 units. How many α-particles will be generated during the decay

of a 238

92U atom to a 206

82 Pb atom.

1. 8

2. 16

3. 10

4. 5

19. Depletion of ozone layer and formation of ozone hole in polar regions is a phenomenon

occurring in the

1. troposphere.

2. mesosphere.

3. stratosphere.

4. thermosphere.

20. Sea levels are predicted to rise in the near future mainly due to

1. sinking of landmass

2. increased rainfall

3. gravitational pull of the moon

4. melting of glaciers.

21. The pH value of distilled water is always below 7. This is because

1. distillation reduces the ionic product of water.

2. during distillation inorganic salts are removed.

3. nitrogen from air gets dissolved in it.

4. CO2 from air dissolves in it.

22. Photosynthesis in water bodies is restricted to a certain depth. This is mainly

because

1. temperature decreases with depth

2. light intensity decreases with depth

3. dissolved CO2 is available only to a certain depth

4. nutrients are available only to a certain depth

23. The velocity of P (pressure) and S (shear) seismic waves depends on the

compressibility, shear modulus and density of the medium. The inner core of the Earth

is inferred to be liquid using seismic wave travel time. This is because

1. the density of the inner core is the highest.

2. the inner core has a very high compressibility.

3. both P and S waves pass through the inner core.

4. the S wave does not pass through the inner core.

24. One of the following chemicals used as food preservative is

1. sodium benzoate

2. sodium alkylbenzene sulfonate

3. ethylene glycol

4. aspartic acid

25. Qualitative analysis of Al3+ in presence of Fe3+ and Cr3+ is based on

1. reducing nature of Fe3+



2. oxidizing nature of Cr3+



3. amphoteric nature of Fe3+



4. amphoteric nature of Al3+ and Cr3+



26. Hydrolysis of t-butyl chloride in presence of aqueous alkali produces t-butyl alcohol.

The rate of hydrolysis depends on

1. concentration of t-butyl chloride

2. concentration of alkali

3. amount of water

4. concentration of both alkali and t-butyl chloride

27. Which one of the following would give natural rubber upon polymerisation?

1. CH3 – CH2 = CH2



H CH3



| |

2 n-propyl– C = C–CH =CH2



CH3 CH3



| |

3. H3C – C = C – CH = CH2



CH3



|

4. CH2 = C – CH = CH2



28. The ionization potential (IP) of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. The estimated second IP of

the helium atom (in eV) is

1. 6.8

2. 27.2

3. 54.4

4. 13.6

29. The following molecule has a non-zero dipole moment

1. CH4



2. CO2



3. NH3



4. BF3



30. The oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 is

1. + 6

2. + 3

3. + 10

4. + 5

31.

A B (salt)

Na + H2

(alcohol)



B MeI C (ether)



C Conc. HI MeI

A NaOH/I2 iodoform



heat



The alcohol (A), salt (B) and ether (C), are respectively

1. CH3OH, CH3ONa, CH3-O-CH3



2. CH3OH, C2H5ONa, CH3-O-C2H5



3. C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5-O-C2H5



4. C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, CH3–O-C2H5



32. In any ecosystem, the primary producers such as photosynthetic plants are the most

abundant and predators such as tigers are the least abundant. The fundamental law

responsible for this pattern is

1. first law of thermodynamics

2. second law of thermodynamics

3. Mendel's laws of genetics

4. law of conservation of mass

33. In the Siberian forests, carbon fixation is expected to be maximum in

1. January

2. July

3. October

4. April

34. Movement of water in a tree takes place in

1. roots only

2. in the central part of the stem

3. in the peripheral part of the stem

4. leaves only

35. Which of the following is not used as a fertilizer?

1. Ammonium nitrate

2. Ammonium phosphate

3. Urea

4. Sodium chloride

36. In DNA, Adenosine pairs with Thymine, and Guanine pairs with Cytosine. If Adenosine

constitutes 18% and Guanine constitutes 24% of all nucleotides in a DNA preparation, it

must be a

1. single stranded DNA

2. double stranded DNA

3. very short stretch of double stranded DNA

4. multi-chromosomal DNA

37. A bacterium which is 1 μ in diameter and divides every 20 minutes, forms a 1 mm

diameter colony in 24 hours in a growth medium with limited nutrients. The number of

cells in the colony is approximately

1. 1000

2 . 109



3. 2 × 72

4. 272



38. Burns caused by steam are more serious than burns caused by boiling water because

1. steam has large latent heat

2. steam has a very large specific heat compared to water

3. steam is hotter than boiling water

4. steam being a gas makes easy contact with skin

39. The largest decimal number that a four byte integer can represent is approximately

1. 105



2. 107



3. 109



4. 1011



40. A modern personal computer is capable of multiplying two numbers in a few

1. picoseconds

2. nanoseconds

3. microseconds

4. milliseconds